Thanks. So, it’s primarily Zhangzhou/Chiangchew that has “-eng”? It struck me that Douglas (and Barclay) write “-eng”, whereas I was under the impression that Douglas was mostly based on Amoy pronunciation... Perhaps he says something about this in the introduction – I’ll have to have another look.If not mistaken, Hokkien variants within E-mng/Amoy and Cuanciu/Quanzhou groups all have "-iəng" instead of "eng".
I would say that "ə" is more obvious in E-mng "-iəng", compared to Tang-ua*/Tong'an (more like "-ing").
I’ve been meaning to send you an article on Sumatran Hokkien, where all words which correspond to Penang Hokkien “-eng” are indeed transcribed as “-ing”. This is an article which Ah-bin sent me.
I really like this observation. I can imagine a series of steps where “-ing” would be “i” + “ng” and then, (as happened in Tang-ua*/Tong'an) there would be a very slight “ə” at the beginning of the “-ng”, just to make the pronunciation “easier”, and that slight “ə” might gradually become more and more prominent, until it became an essential part of the word, and hence the diphthong “iə” (as in Amoy etc). I'm not saying this is the actual historical sequence, I'm just saying that it's a plausible way that the “-iəng” might have developed.Hmmm, actually I think "ə" there is due to "ng", rather than meant as real vowel.
Hi Andrew,
Very good point. For me, it’s high level: negligible dip, and very high. I guess this is what struck Ah-bin when he first met me - the "khuaN3" in "khuaN3-mia7" (fortune-telling) was perhaps where he first observed this.If you say the phrase chhau3-chho1 or si3-khO1, I don't know whether you agree that the 3-tone does actually have a dip, maybe 54-44 rather than 55-44?
I'm getting very confused about the actual contours of Penang Hokkien tones now! Particularly as I'm now realising that Penang Hokkien tone-2 is not as sharply falling as Amoy tone-2 (mentioned when I first raised this subject). As I said then, this insight enabled me to realise why Penang Hokkien "ho2" (= "good") sounds so different from Amoy "ho2".
What your question has made me wonder, Andrew, is whether in fact my Penang Hokkien sandhied form of tone-3 might not in fact be the same contour as Penang Hokkien citation tone-2. I never thought this in the past, because I thought of Penang Hokkien citation tone-2 as a (sharply) falling tone, and sandhied tone-3 as a level one. [More on this at the end of the next comment.]
Yes, some linguists describing “tone-sandhi” have remarked that it’s a “strange co-incidence” that the sandhied tones correspond to (other) citation tones. Indeed, there is no other reason for this than that it is "more neat". Or, put another way, that “the human mind doesn't need to create additional, unneccesary other categories or distinctions”. This in fact happened to me. For years, I've thought that the Penang Hokkien sandhied tone-3 was tone-1, because they were both high-ish level (or so I thought) - my mind simply didn't bother to create another category, even though I now realise that the two tones are quite different.I suppose there is no reason why the a sandhi/running tone must correspond to another citation/standing tone, other than it is more neat.
One might start to venture the opinion that Penang Hokkien at least is an exception to this common pattern - i.e. that in Penang Hokkien, one of the sandhi-tones isn't similar to any of the citation tones.
However (going back to the previous comment), if (as Andrew asked) Penang Hokkien sandhied tone-3 has a slight dip (say 54), and Penang Hokkien citation tone-2 is indeed "high, slightly falling only", then we might have the case that in Penang Hokkien, the sandhied form of tone-3 is in fact the same contour as the citation form of tone-2! [This then restores Penang Hokkien to having the traditional tone sandhi diagram, and we no longer have to have the modified tone-sandhi rule Tone-3 -> Tone-1 (in non-final position).]
My Mandarin teacher was born and bred in Beijing, and the “-iəng” in her pronunciation was one of the first things I noticed. (Until now, she’s the only one I have noticed speaking like this, but that has largely to do with the fact that continuous Mandarin speech is still completely incomprehensible to me, so I would only notice this when someone – like my teacher – is saying single words for us to repeat after her, and I happen to know the pinyin). I would agree (if that is what you are implicitly saying), that the “ə” in many Hokkien variants has an independent origin from the one in Beijing Mandarin. For one thing, there is no obvious (geographical/socio-linguistic) mechanism of transmission of the Beijing one to the Hokkien one. And for another, in the Hokkien case, it’s “-eng” vs “iəng” whereas in the Mandarin situation, it’s “-ing” vs “-iəng” (though Niuc’s example of Tang-ua*/Tong'an is indeed “-ing” vs “-iəng”).Yet the -ieng is used in Beijing Mandarin but not (afaiaa) in Taiwanese Mandarin, but is used in Amoy/Taiwan Hokkien.